Liberal Math

Found this by means of Best of the Web. According to the Seattle Public Health Office - and I’m just paraphrasing here, condoms are “at least 90%” effective, while abstinence has “a contraceptive failure rate of 26%”.

While I am only aware of one recorded event of conception without sex, apparently it is more common in the Pacific Northwest. Just so you don’t think I am making it up, here is the full quote:

A 1988 National Survey of Family Growth found abstinence to have a contraceptive failure rate of 26% when not practiced consistently. So, in abstinence, as in condom use, consistency is key.

So their definition of abstinence involves having sex, which really isn’t abstinence at all. But who am I to question their logic? If you recall, this is the same political idealology that had problems defining “sex” and “is”, so you can see the confusion over "abstinence".